UPSC Agriculture Quiz – 25 Questions

Category: UPSC Quiz

UPSC Psychology Subject Quiz

Here are 10 quiz questions based on the UPSC Psychology syllabus, covering a broad range of topics within the subject:

1 / 10

The 'Stages of Cognitive Development' were proposed by which psychologist?

2 / 10

Which theory of emotion suggests that physiological arousal and the emotional experience occur simultaneously?

3 / 10

'Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs' is a theory in psychology that includes all of the following EXCEPT:

4 / 10

In the context of psychological testing, what does 'Reliability' refer to?

5 / 10

The 'Big Five' personality traits do NOT include:

6 / 10

Which memory system has an unlimited capacity and can retain information for long periods?

7 / 10

What does the term 'Cognitive Dissonance' refer to?

8 / 10

The concept of 'Operant Conditioning' was introduced by which psychologist?

9 / 10

Which psychological approach emphasizes the study of observable behavior and the effects of learning?

10 / 10

What is the primary focus of Psychodynamic theories of personality?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Civil Engineering Subject Quiz

1 / 10

The time between the peak rainfall and the peak discharge is known as:

2 / 10

Critical Path Method (CPM) is used to:

3 / 10

The instrument used for measuring angles in surveying is:

4 / 10

The most common process used for sewage treatment is:

5 / 10

The minimum width of a carriageway for a single lane as per IRC standards is:

6 / 10

The consolidation process in soils is primarily due to:

7 / 10

Bernoulli’s equation is applicable to which type of flow?

8 / 10

The process of mixing the ingredients of concrete to make a homogeneous mixture is known as:

9 / 10

In a determinate beam, the maximum number of reactions can be:

10 / 10

The ratio of the lateral strain to the longitudinal strain in a stretched wire is known as:

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Economics Subject Quiz

1 / 10

The 'Ease of Doing Business Index' is published by which of the following?

2 / 10

Which of the following indices is used to measure income inequality?

3 / 10

The term 'Stagflation' refers to an economic situation characterized by:

4 / 10

Which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?

5 / 10

Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) model' in India was introduced as part of which economic policy?

6 / 10

What is the primary objective of the 'Make in India' initiative?

7 / 10

Which of the following schemes is aimed at providing a permanent universal basic income to all citizens?

8 / 10

What does the term 'GDP at Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)' imply?

9 / 10

In the context of Indian Economy, what does 'Monetary Policy' primarily focus on?

10 / 10

Which of the following terms describes the situation when the government's expenditures exceed its revenue?

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

UPSC Mechanical Engineering Quiz

1 / 10

The 'Ease of Doing Business Index' is published by which of the following?

2 / 10

Which of the following indices is used to measure income inequality?

3 / 10

The term 'Stagflation' refers to an economic situation characterized by:

4 / 10

Which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?

5 / 10

Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) model' in India was introduced as part of which economic policy?

6 / 10

What is the primary objective of the 'Make in India' initiative?

7 / 10

Which of the following schemes is aimed at providing a permanent universal basic income to all citizens?

8 / 10

What does the term 'GDP at Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)' imply?

9 / 10

In the context of Indian Economy, what does 'Monetary Policy' primarily focus on?

10 / 10

Which of the following terms describes the situation when the government's expenditures exceed its revenue?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Geography Quiz

1 / 10

Which of the following countries is not located in the Horn of Africa?

2 / 10

The concept of 'Plate Tectonics' explains the movement of the Earth's?

3 / 10

'Isohyets' are lines on a map showing areas of?

4 / 10

Which of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation?

5 / 10

The 'Ring of Fire' is associated with?

6 / 10

The term 'ecotone' refers to?

7 / 10

'El Niño' refers to?

8 / 10

Which of the following is not a factor affecting soil formation?

9 / 10

The concept of 'Continental Drift' was proposed by?

10 / 10

Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Chemistry Quiz

1 / 10

Which element has the highest electronegativity value?

2 / 10

Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution?

3 / 10

Which of the following is a primary air pollutant?

4 / 10

The number of ligands in an octahedral complex is:

5 / 10

For a reaction A → B, the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of A is quadrupled. The order of the reaction is:

6 / 10

The standard electrode potential for the zinc electrode in the reaction Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Zn(s) is:

7 / 10

Which of the following processes is always spontaneous?

8 / 10

Which of the following is not a characteristic of ionic compounds?

9 / 10

Which of the following quantum numbers determines the shape of an orbital?

10 / 10

What is the mass of one mole of carbon-12 atoms?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Electrical Quiz

1 / 10

What is the purpose of a capacitor in an AC circuit?

2 / 10

What type of motor is most commonly used in ceiling fans?

3 / 10

In a three-phase system, what is the phase difference between each phase?

4 / 10

What is the principle of operation of an induction motor?

5 / 10

Which device is used to convert alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC)?

6 / 10

What does the transformer turn ratio 10:1 signify?

7 / 10

Which law states that the total voltage around a closed loop must be zero?

8 / 10

What is the unit of electrical charge?

9 / 10

In a DC circuit, if the voltage across a resistor doubles and its resistance remains constant, what happens to the current through it?

10 / 10

Which of the following materials has the highest electrical conductivity?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Geology Quiz

1 / 10

The principle of Superposition states that in any undeformed sequence of sedimentary rocks, each layer is:

2 / 10

Which era is known as the "Age of Reptiles"?

3 / 10

The Earth's inner core is primarily composed of:

4 / 10

The process by which sediment is transported and deposited to form sedimentary rocks is known as:

5 / 10

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of igneous rocks?

6 / 10

What is the Mohs Scale used for?

7 / 10

In which type of rock would you most likely find fossils?

8 / 10

The theory of Plate Tectonics explains the movement of Earth's lithosphere. This theory was proposed by:

9 / 10

Which of the following minerals is not a silicate?

10 / 10

Petrology is the study of:

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

RBI Grade B English Language and Awareness Quiz

1 / 25

Which of the following are called "Key Industrial animals"?

2 / 25

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence only.

(A) When you look at a product / (B) on one of it’s web pages, / (C) Amazon suggests other / (D) products you might like as well.

3 / 25

India’s rank has been improved in Global Innovation Index 2020 to 48th rank from _____ in 2019.

4 / 25

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence only.

(A) The people of his country had made / (B) him there king; but as soon as / (C) he had made good laws for / (D) them he gave up his crown.

5 / 25

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence only.

(A) The people of his country had made / (B) him there king; but as soon as / (C) he had made good laws for / (D) them he gave up his crown.

6 / 25

the Earth's axis is not tilting toward or away from the sun.

7 / 25

We are not only afraid of being in the dark; we are also __________ of being kept in the dark.

8 / 25

Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

The traffic came to a standstill after the heavy downpour of rain

9 / 25

In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the four combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.

 

1. The psychology professor

P. to an auditorium

Q. stress management principles

R. walked around on a

S. stage while teaching

6. filled with students

10 / 25

Which of the given amendments made it compulsory for the president to consent to the constitutional Amendment bills?

11 / 25

 With reference to Indian Polity, the 'Doctrine of Proportionality' is applied by the Judiciary to test:

12 / 25

What is the theme of the Digital Health Summit 2023?

13 / 25

The perceived centre of the Sun’s disk is in the same plane as the Equator when:

14 / 25

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The ancient Greeks knew as early _________ 600 B.C. that when resin was rubbed with fur, it attracted light objects such as hair.

15 / 25

In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the four combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.

1. The psychology professor

P. to an auditorium

Q. stress management principles

R. walked around on a

S. stage while teaching

6. filled with students

16 / 25

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The number of people suffering from diseases of the respiratory system _____________ steadily rising.

17 / 25

In the following questions, select the word which can aptly substitute the given sentence.

A community of people smaller than a village

18 / 25

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence only.

(A) When you look at a product / (B) on one of it’s web pages, / (C) Amazon suggests other / (D) products you might like as well.

19 / 25

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that given their correct order.

A. India needs to work on this part to inspire and motivate young talents to take up basic sciences, thereby driving the country’s primary research thurst.

B. Several universities (for instance, The University of Calcutta) offer post-BSc-B.Tech programs that aim to provide the students with both the perspectives of Science and technology.

C. In India, a majority of the students opt for technology rather than studying basic sciences due to the lucrative industrial career opportunities.

D. The establishment of the Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research is one of the efforts to nurture the basic sciences at both the undergraduate and graduate levels.

20 / 25

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

I ______ an unopened letter lying on the mantelpiece.

21 / 25

Choose the sentence with no spelling error.

22 / 25

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

No doubt, human minds are good on predicting the worst.

23 / 25

Elections to panchayats in state are regulated by

24 / 25

You will find much of your power diminished, especially _________ those who used to bow to you.

25 / 25

IUCN Stands for ______.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Law Paper Quiz

1 / 25

Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

2 / 25

Which of the following is not a source of law in India?

3 / 25

Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?

4 / 25

The term 'Ombudsman' refers to:

5 / 25

. The "Law of the Sea" convention is administered by:

6 / 25

The 'Doctrine of Severability' is associated with which of the following?

7 / 25

Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister?

8 / 25

The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year:

9 / 25

The principle that "no one can be a judge in his own case" is known as:

10 / 25

Which of the following High Courts has jurisdiction over the largest number of States?

11 / 25

The term 'Golden Triangle' in the Indian Constitution refers to:

12 / 25

. Which of the following is a quasi-judicial body in India?

13 / 25

The term 'Habeas Corpus' refers to:

14 / 25

Which of the following is not a source of International Law?

15 / 25

The principle of 'audi alteram partem' is fundamental to:

16 / 25

Sedition is covered under which Section of the Indian Penal Code?

17 / 25

The Right to Information Act was passed in which year?

18 / 25

Which of the following cases is related to the Basic Structure Doctrine of the Constitution?

19 / 25

Who is the current Chief Justice of India? (As of my last update in April 2023)

20 / 25

The legal principle "Ignorantia juris non excusat" means:

21 / 25

Which Act was enacted to provide for the protection of women from domestic violence?

22 / 25

The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in:

23 / 25

Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

24 / 25

The term 'Double Jeopardy' is found in which Article of the Indian Constitution?

25 / 25

Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Equality?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Veterinary subject Quiz

1 / 20

The lightest body weighed goat is

2 / 20

Lactose found in milk is a disaccharide composed of

3 / 20

Polenske value of milk is due to

4 / 20

The first cloned sheep ‘Dolly’ was created through which of these techniques?

5 / 20

 

American chicken breeds skin colour is

6 / 20

Mediterranean chicken breeds egg shell colour is

7 / 20

 

Licking of wall is the vices observed in animal due to

8 / 20

The nitrogen content (%) of urea fertilizer is

9 / 20

 

Operation Flood III Was Launched during

10 / 20

 

Who is the architect of Indian modern dairy industry?

11 / 20

Post is example of _________ aid

12 / 20

Balwant Ray Mehta committee was appointed by

13 / 20

 

Sterno abdominal presentation is a

14 / 20

The relations of the dorsum of the fetus to the quandrants of the maternal pelvis is

15 / 20

Early insemination during estrous leads to fertilization failure due to

16 / 20

 

Obturator paralysis is more common in

17 / 20

 

Spherical bodies, weighing 0.45 – 0.9 kg, attached to the placenta of a normal calf comprising of an outer skin enclosing a mass of adipose connective tissue is known as

18 / 20

 

The terms gene and genotype were coined by

19 / 20

Exchange of non homologous chromosome material is known as

20 / 20

The dose of a drug that kills 50 % of the population is known as

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Accountancy Subject Quiz

1 / 25

Which is not a benefit of financial accounting?

2 / 25

_____ is the scope of financial accounting.

3 / 25

Financial accountancy is governed by ___________

4 / 25

__________ is a specialised branch of accounting that keeps track of a company’s financial transactions.

5 / 25

This method is carried out for the castration of male pigs

6 / 25

Financial accounting reports to the ________ after the completion of the accounting year.

7 / 25

Financial accounting provides accounting information to the ________ though the information is useful for internal purposes also.

8 / 25

_________ are the basis of the business’s financial accounting.

9 / 25

The overriding purpose of financial accounting is to summarize financial activity in business in the ______

10 / 25

Which is not a limitation of financial accounting?

11 / 25

Select the correct answer.

12 / 25

Presentation of of financial accounting reports is mandatory under the provisions of of section 209 (1), 210 (1) and 216, 217 of __________

13 / 25

Financial accounting reports lay greater emphasis on the _______

14 / 25

Financial accounting cover overall performance of the _______

15 / 25

Financial accounting reports include _____

16 / 25

_______ explain the financial position of the reporting entity at the end of the accounting period.

17 / 25

________ are the components of financial statements.

18 / 25

____________ is a structured representation of the financial performance and financial position of a business and changes over a period of time.

19 / 25

The annual reports are to be prepared and published for circulation among the external end users such as __________

20 / 25

Financial accounting statements are subject to ______

21 / 25

Notes and schedules is used to present supplementary information explaining different items of financial statements.

22 / 25

______ is used to analyse the pattern of movement or activity during the period to identify the way the enterprise has generated cash and the way they have been used in an accounting period.

23 / 25

Cash flow is also known as _____

24 / 25

______ is not a primary source of long-term debt financing.

25 / 25

_______ helps to find out the profit made on loss sustained in a particular accounting period through transactions and events.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC General Awareness Quiz

1 / 25

In 2019, Which popular singer was awarded the Bharat Ratna award?

2 / 25

Where was India’s first national Museum opened?

3 / 25

What is the name of the weak zone of the earth’s crust?

4 / 25

 Which of the three banks will be merged with the other two to create India’s third-largest bank?

5 / 25

______ is a written evidence in support of a business transaction.

6 / 25

The green planet in the solar system is?

7 / 25

What is the full form of DRDL?

8 / 25

 Vijay Singh (golf player) is from which country?

9 / 25

When was Pravasi Bhartiya Divas held in Varanasi?

10 / 25

The world’s nation 5G mobile network was launched by which country?

11 / 25

The largest public sector undertaking in the country is?

12 / 25

Which of these is the plant important in sericulture?

13 / 25

Which of these is the small-scale industry in India?

14 / 25

What is the reason behind the Bats flying in the dark?

15 / 25

The father of Indian missile technology is _________________?

16 / 25

What is the name of the first Indian woman who wins the Man Booker Prize?

17 / 25

Why is the color of papaya yellow?

18 / 25

The study of Heavenly bodies is Known as _________?

19 / 25

In 2017, Who was appointed as the new Brand Ambassador for Swachh Bharat Mission?

20 / 25

At which place on earth are there days & nights of equal length always?

21 / 25

Which of the following is not correct with respect to the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19 of the Constitution of India?

22 / 25

Who among the following established the 'Mahila Seva Mandal' and 'Native Female School' in Pune?

23 / 25

. With reference to the modern history of India, ‘Damin-i-Koh’ refers to:

24 / 25

Consider the following statements:

  1. two Dominions and two Constituent Assemblies
  2. referendum in the North-West Frontier Province
  3. independence of princely states

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

25 / 25

.In medieval India, the term ‘Amir-i-Chahalgani’ referred to:

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC English Language Quiz

1 / 23

In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in the Answer Sheet.

1. One day Guru Nanak went to a small village.

P. So he went to a small house and knocked at the door.

Q. It was late in the evening.

R. A man opened the door.

S. He was hungry and tired.

6. Guru Nanak said to him, "I am traveller."

2 / 23

In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in the Answer Sheet.

1. I am a simple man.

P. That year the winter came early.

Q. So I love the earth, the fresh air, the animals, and the wind and the sky.

R. I was born in a village and never left it.

S. One evening I visited my cousin, Karl.

6. He wanted me to go with him and shoot ducks in the fields.

3 / 23

In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the five combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.

1. Even though plants  and animals

P. if their occurrence is natural,

Q. can adapt themselves to

R. changes in nature

S. any drastic change can hamper

6. them  extensively.

4 / 23

In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the five combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.

1.Today however, Giant pandas

P. in some areas

Q. and a few

R. can only be found

S. of the Tibetan Plateau

6. mountain regions.

5 / 23

The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 & 6.The rest of the sentence, is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. 

1. It was obvious

P. made by him

Q. submitted at the meeting

R. from the comments

S. on the draft proposals

6. that he was not satisfied with them.

6 / 23

Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

His promotion is on the cards.

7 / 23

Select one word which means most nearly the same as the given phrase. If that is not the answer, select item 5.

That cannot be taken away

8 / 23

Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

The traffic came to a standstill  after the heavy downpour of rain.

9 / 23

Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

The two famous writers crossed swords with each other on every issue.

10 / 23

n the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. That is the world we have been living in, and live in today. Nuclear weapons pose a ........... (106) danger of instant destruction, but at least we know in principle how to alleviate the threat, even to eliminate it, an .................... (107) undertaken (and disregarded) by the nuclear powers that have signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty. The threat of global warming is not ..........., (108) though it is .......... (109) in the longer term and might escalate suddenly. That we have the capacity to deal with it is not entirely clear, but there can be no doubt that the longer the delay, the more ........... (110) the calamity.

Choose the appropriate word to fill the blank.

11 / 23

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. That is the world we have been living in, and live in today. Nuclear weapons pose a ........... (106) danger of instant destruction, but at least we know in principle how to alleviate the threat, even to eliminate it, an .................... (107) undertaken (and disregarded) by the nuclear powers that have signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty. The threat of global warming is not ..........., (108) though it is .......... (109) in the longer term and might escalate suddenly. That we have the capacity to deal with it is not entirely clear, but there can be no doubt that the longer the delay, the more ........... (110) the calamity.

Choose the appropriate word to fill the blank.

12 / 23

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. That is the world we have been living in, and live in today. Nuclear weapons pose a ........... (106) danger of instant destruction, but at least we know in principle how to alleviate the threat, even to eliminate it, an .................... (107) undertaken (and disregarded) by the nuclear powers that have signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty. The threat of global warming is not ..........., (108) though it is .......... (109) in the longer term and might escalate suddenly. That we have the capacity to deal with it is not entirely clear, but there can be no doubt that the longer the delay, the more ........... (110) the calamity.

Choose the appropriate word to fill the blank.

13 / 23

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. That is the world we have been living in, and live in today. Nuclear weapons pose a ........... (106) danger of instant destruction, but at least we know in principle how to alleviate the threat, even to eliminate it, an .................... (107) undertaken (and disregarded) by the nuclear powers that have signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty. The threat of global warming is not ..........., (108) though it is .......... (109) in the longer term and might escalate suddenly. That we have the capacity to deal with it is not entirely clear, but there can be no doubt that the longer the delay, the more ........... (110) the calamity.

Choose the appropriate word to fill the blank.

14 / 23

In each question, there are five sentences. Each has a pair of words that are italicised and highlighted. From the italicised and highlighted words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.

The supreme court’s sole (A)/soul (B) woman judge asked whether the much-touted gender justice will continue to remain only on paper.

There is no doubt that triple talaq violates women’s rights to equality and freedom, including freedom within the marriage and should be invalidated (A)/ validated (B) by the Supreme Court.

As a continental power, China is kneading (A) / knitting (B) together the Asian market not only with roads, rail, ports and fibre optics but also through currency exchange, standards, shifting of industry and common approaches to intellectual property rights.

15 / 23

In each question, there are some sentences. Each has a pair of words that is highlighted in bold. From the highlighted words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.

The corps (A) /corpus (B) inscriptions is an irrefutable source material for the reconstruction of Indian history.

The company was confidant (A) / confident (B) of crossing the Rs. 5000 crore mark in revenues during the current years.

She appraised (A) / apprised (B) the works undertaken in the water scarcity-hit areas in Rajasthan and asked Government to pay attention to the quality of water.

16 / 23

 each question, there are some sentences. Each has a pair of words that is highlighted in bold. From the highlighted words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.The Chairman is quite (A) / quiet (B) satisfied with the work carried out by the foundation.

With her performance deteriorating, she would need many (A) / much (B) hours of practice.

The earlier version aimed at diverting the canal water to a dry existing canal of an earlier project with minimal averse (A) / adverse (B) effects.

17 / 23

In each question, there are some sentences. Each has a pair of words that is highlighted in bold. From the highlighted words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.

Sowing of course (A) / coarse(B) has been hit harddue to delay andslow progress of monsoon in parts of the country.

We need to have appetite for change and the courage for change, and we need census (A) / consensus (B) to do so.

I need your advice (A)/ advise (B) on which offer I should accept.

18 / 23

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Reena bought a new packet of tissues.

19 / 23

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Grandfather reads the newspaper every day.

20 / 23

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

She sew a bag from an old bedsheet.

21 / 23

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. 

The application had been sent by her.

22 / 23

In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the five combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.

1. The director of the research organization

P. cactus in food

Q. and nutritional security

R. elaborated on the

S.  crucial role of

6.  of the country

23 / 23

Directions: In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the five combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.

1. “Being shy and

P. flabbergasted by the

Q. reserved by nature,

R. a farmer naturally gets

S. security at the gate and the protocols

6.   involved in such centres,”

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Management Subject Quiz

1 / 23

An effective MIS (Management Information System) should have all the features, except?

2 / 23

Which of the following is correct about the classical approach of management?

i. It is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflows, with the objective of improving labour productivity

ii. Bureaucracy, characterized by division of labour, hierarchy, formalized rules, impersonality, and the selection and promotion of employees based on ability, would leads to more efficient management

iii. Considers the organization as a system that transforms inputs into outputs while in constant interaction with its' environment.

3 / 23

Management is considered both as science and art, because?

4 / 23

If the depreciation on machinery kept in the factory is charged, which among the following will go up?

5 / 23

ESOPs are:

6 / 23

A break-even point is one where:

7 / 23

The lower a manager is in the organisational hierarchy, the more important his/her _______ skills are

8 / 23

The capacity to influence people and accomplish desired objectives is called:

9 / 23

The Economic Survey 2021-22, talks about which of the following approach adopted by the government to COVID-19 ?

10 / 23

What percentage of their total outstanding advances, are RRBs to lend to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending and sub sector targets?

11 / 23

Which of the following is an Expense for an accounting year

12 / 23

What among the following is not the essential pre-requisites of a JIT System?

13 / 23

For a manufacturing concern, what will be the effect of increase in debtors on the Cash flow Statement?

14 / 23

The application of the principles of accounting and financial management to create, protect, preserve and increase value for stakeholders is known as ________

15 / 23

The process of accounting for cost which begins with the recording of income and expenditure or the bases on which they are calculated and ends with the preparation of periodical statements and reports for ascertaining and controlling costs is known as _________

16 / 23

A and B exchange currency at a rate that takes place after a period of 1 month from spot date. What is the rate called in such case?

17 / 23

Which of the following are adjusted from the net profit to arrive at the operating cashflow under indirect method?

A.    Depreciation

B.    Income Tax paid

C.  Dividend received

18 / 23

Which of the following is prepared for each job regardless of the time taken for the completion of the job?

19 / 23

RST Ltd’s has the following information

Sales = 300000

Cost of Goods Sold = Rs 140000

Pre-Interest Operating Expenses = Rs 30000

Interest Expenses = Rs 10000

Tax rate = 20%

Average total assets = Rs 1000000

What is RST Ltd’s Return on Assets?

20 / 23

if cost of equity is 15% with weight 1/3 and cost of debt is 10% with weight 2/3, calculate weighted average cost of capital. Rate of tax is 32%?

21 / 23

The category of costing which is applicable to work carried out or products produced by specific orders as against continuous production, is known as ______

22 / 23

Which of the following is not a principle of Kaizen Costing?

23 / 23

Management accounting can assist the management by provision of relevant information for __________

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

UPSC Agriculture Subject Quiz

1 / 25

Paragraph on dynamic Horticulture

Largest share of horticultural crops in the fiscal year 2021?

2 / 25

Acc. to PMFBY, threshold yield for a crop in an insurance unit shall be based on

3 / 25

The loan criteria for Kisan credit card scheme includes:

4 / 25

Green house technology is introduced in Indian during

5 / 25

Which of the following act as a regulator of agricultural produce market?

6 / 25

-------------------- is a generic name for an organization of producers of any produce, e.g., agricultural, non-farm products, artisan products, etc. It can be a producer company, a cooperative society or any other legal form which provides for sharing of profits or benefits among the members.

7 / 25

Which soil has high water holding capacity with poor drainage

8 / 25

Which of the following state has highest area under organic farming in India?

9 / 25

rrigation method which is most efficient in water and nutrient delivery system for crop growing and delivers water and nutrients directly to plant root zone.

10 / 25

Which of the following state has highest inland water resources in the form of brackish water?

11 / 25

According to Rangarajan committee which of the following shows the poverty threshold line?

12 / 25

Under the PMFBY the premium rate (%) to be paid by farmer of the total cost of all kharif crops and oilseeds

13 / 25

Fat content in double toned milk is ____

14 / 25

What is the percentage of Gross Cropped Area (GCA) covered under the PMFBY scheme in the implementing States/UTs since its inception?

15 / 25

What is the percentage of nitrogen in the ammonium nitrate?

16 / 25

Which one of the mineral is considered under secondary mineral?

17 / 25

Koleraga disease of areca palm is also known also

18 / 25

Tikka disease of groundnut is caused by which pathogen

19 / 25

Hardening in sugarcane plant occurs when

20 / 25

What is the optimum temperature range for germination of wheat seed ?

21 / 25

Which installment of PM kisan released on 31st may 2022, as an income support to the farmers and what is the total number of beneficiaries benefitted this time?

22 / 25

When water is available for three irrigation in wheat , than it should apply to.

23 / 25

Which one of the following is not a type of farming?

24 / 25

Larvae of flies is known as maggot except

25 / 25

Ginger is propagated by means of

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

JEE Inorganic Chemistry Class 11th ,QUIZ

1 / 25

 A metal M readily forms its sulphate MS0which is water soluble. It forms its oxide MO which becomes inert on heating. It forms an insoluble hydroxide M(OH)2 which is soluble in NaOH solution. Then M is

2 / 25

K02(potassium super oxide) is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarines. This is because it

3 / 25

 In curing cement plasters water is sprinkled from time to time. This helps in

4 / 25

 Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character, respectively are :

5 / 25

Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of

6 / 25

Which of the following are Lewis acids?

7 / 25

Which one has the highest boiling point?

8 / 25

Glass is a

9 / 25

The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas by the thermal decomposition is

10 / 25

From the following statements regarding H2O2, choose the incorrect statement :

11 / 25

 A metal M on heating in nitrogen gas gives Y. Y on treatment with H2O gives a colourless gas which when passed through CuSO4 solution gives a blue colour, Y is :

12 / 25

Based on lattice energy and other considerations, which one of the following alkali metal chloride is expected to have the highest melting point ?

13 / 25

The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salt is

14 / 25

Which of the following statements about Na2O2 is not correct?

15 / 25

The correct statement for the molecule, CsI3, is :

16 / 25

Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) On decomposition of H2O2, O2 gas is released.

(2) 2-ethylanthraquinol is used in the preparation of H2O2

(3) On heating KClO3, Pb(NO3)2, NaNO3, O2 gas is released.

(4) In the preparation of sodium peroxoborate, H2O2 is treated with sodium metaborate.

17 / 25

Hydrogen peroxide oxidises [Fe(CN)6]4- to [Fe(CN)6]3- in acidic medium but reduces

[Fe(CN)6]3- to [Fe(CN)6]4- in alkaline medium. The other products formed are, respectively :

18 / 25

Hydrogen peroxide acts both as an oxidising and as a reducing agent depending upon the nature of the reacting species. In which of the following cases does H2Oact as a reducing agent in acid medium?

19 / 25

. Determine the total number of neutrons in three isotopes of hydrogen

20 / 25

 Identify the incorrect statement regarding heavy water.

21 / 25

How many electrons are involved in the following redox reaction?

Cr2O72- + Fe2+ + C2O42- → Cr3+ + Fe3+ + CO2 (Unbalanced)

22 / 25

In which of the following reaction H2O2 acts as a reducing agent ?

(1) H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e → 2H2O

(2) H2O2 -2e → O2+2H+

(3) H2O2 + 2e → 2OH

(4) H2O2 + 2OH -2e → O2 + 2H2O

23 / 25

 Consider the reaction

H2SO3(aq) + Sn4+(aq) + H2O(l) → Sn2+(aq) + HSO4(aq) + 3H+(aq)

Which of the following statements is correct?

24 / 25

Consider the following reaction:

xMnO4+ yC2O42- +zH+ → xMn2+ + 2yCO2+(z/2)H2O

The values of x, y and z in the reaction are respectively :-

25 / 25

Given : XNa2HAsO3 +YNaBrO3+ZHCl → NaBr + H3AsO4 + NaCl

The values of X, Y and Z in the above redox reaction are respectively :

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

JEE Physical Chemistry ,Class (11th) ,QUIZ

1 / 25

Value of gas constant R is

2 / 25

 The compressibility factor for a real gas at high pressure is :

3 / 25

The temperature at which oxygen molecules have the same root mean square

speed as helium atoms have at 300 K is :

4 / 25

 Which intermolecular force is most responsible in allowing xenon gas to liquefy?

5 / 25

If Z is the compressibility factor, van der Waals’ equation at low pressure can be written as :

6 / 25

3g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After an hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is :

7 / 25

The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of number of their molecule is :

8 / 25

The concentrated sulphuric acid that is peddled commercially is 95% H2SO4 by weight. If the density of this commercial acid is 1.834 g cm-3, the molarity of this solution is :-

9 / 25

. The ratio of mass percent of C and H of an organic compound (CxHyOz) is 6 : 1. If one molecule of the above compound ( CxHyO) contains half as much oxygen as required to burn one molecule of compound CXHY completely to CO2 and H2O. The empirical formula of compound CxHyOz is :

10 / 25

. Number of atoms in the following samples of substances is the largest in :

11 / 25

 The hybridisation of orbitals of N atom in NO3, NO2+, NH4+ are respectively:

12 / 25

Among the following, the species having the smallest bond is :

13 / 25

Using MO theory, predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length?

14 / 25

Among the following species which two have a trigonal bipyramidal shape?

(1) NI3 (2) I3 (3) SO32- (4) NO3

15 / 25

 The bond dissociation energy of B–F in BF3 is 646 kJ mol-1 whereas that of C–F in CF4 is 515 kJ mol–1. The correct reason for higher B–F bond dissociation energy as compared to that of C–F is

16 / 25

Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

17 / 25

According to the Periodic Law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their.

18 / 25

The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+will be?

19 / 25

The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given isoelectronic species is?

20 / 25

The radius of La3+ (Atomic number of La=57) is 1.06A. Which one of the following given values will be closest to the radius of Lu3+ (Atomic number of Lu = 71)?

21 / 25

The frequency of light emitted for the transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the transition in H atom corresponding to which of the following

22 / 25

The historic farm bills passed by the Indian Parliament in 2020 aimed at.

23 / 25

 The energy required to break one mole of Cl–Cl bonds in Cl2 is 242 kJ mol-1. The longest wavelength of light capable of breaking a single Cl–Cl bond is

24 / 25

The radius of the second Bohr orbit for the hydrogen atom is :

25 / 25

Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated with a proton moving at 1.0×103ms-1 (Mass of proton = 1.67×10-27kg and h = 6.63×10-34Js)

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

JEE Modern Physics ,Part-1,QUIZ

1 / 26

The frequency of light emitted for the transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the transition in H atom corresponding to which of the following

2 / 26

 The energy required to break one mole of Cl–Cl bonds in Cl2 is 242 kJ mol-1. The longest wavelength of light capable of breaking a single Cl–Cl bond is

3 / 26

The radius of the second Bohr orbit for the hydrogen atom is :

4 / 26

Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated with a proton moving at 1.0×103ms-1 (Mass of proton = 1.67×10-27kg and h = 6.63×10-34Js)

5 / 26

 If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased four times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave associated with it would become

6 / 26

The Bohr model of atoms uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation.

7 / 26

The size of the atom is proportional to which of the following?

8 / 26

Find the true statement.

9 / 26

. According to the uncertainty principle for an electron, time measurement will become uncertain if which of the following is measured with high certainty?

10 / 26

Which source is associated with a line emission spectrum?

11 / 26

According to Bohr’s principle, what is the relation between the principal quantum number and the radius of the orbit?

12 / 26

Which of the following did Bohr use to explain his theory?

13 / 26

Of the following pairs of species which one will have the same electronic configuration for both members?

14 / 26

What is the valence electron in alkali metal?

15 / 26

The atomic number of silicon is 14. Its ground state electronic configuration is

16 / 26

Identify the expression for Bragg’s law from the following.

17 / 26

Intensity is different for different angles of scattering in the Davisson – Germer experiment.

18 / 26

Which of the following is used in the Davisson – Germer experiment?

19 / 26

Which theory is confirmed by the Davisson – Germer experiment?

20 / 26

The sun gives light at the rate of 1500 W/m2 of area perpendicular to the direction of light. Assume the wavelength of light as 5000Å. Calculate the number of photons/s arriving at 1 m2 area at that part of the earth.

21 / 26

When the wavelength of an electron increases, the velocity of the electron will also increase.

22 / 26

Identify the de – Broglie expression from the following.

23 / 26

The magnitude of which of the following is proportional to the frequency of the wave?

24 / 26

What type of nature do electromagnetic waves have?

25 / 26

Photons of energy 10.25 eV fall on the surface of the metal emitting photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy 5.0 eV. What is the stopping voltage required for these electrons?

26 / 26

What will be the photon energy for a wavelength of 5000 angstroms, if the energy of a photon corresponding to a wavelength of 7000 angstroms is 4.23 × 10-19 J?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

JEE Modern Physics Part 2, Quiz

1 / 25

Among the following four spectral regions, in which of them, the photon has the highest energy in?

2 / 25

Calculate the energy of a photon of wavelength 6600 angstroms.

3 / 25

What is the frequency of a photon whose energy is 66.3 eV?

4 / 25

Nuclear fusion is possible in which of the following cases?

5 / 25

In a nuclear reaction, there is the conservation of which of the following?

6 / 25

What amount of energy is released by deuterium and tritium fusion?

7 / 25

What is the reaction responsible for the production of light energy from the sun?

8 / 25

Which of the following is an essential requirement for initiating the fusion reaction?

9 / 25

Which of the following is used as a voltage regulator?

10 / 25

The I-V characteristics of a LED are similar to that of Si junction diode.

11 / 25

Identify the one on which no external bias is applied.

12 / 25

Which of the following converts light energy to electric current?

13 / 25

In Boolean algebra, what will not (A + not (B)).C) be equal to?

14 / 25

Which gate will a NAND gate be equivalent to when two inputs of NAND gates are shorted?

15 / 25

How many basic logic gates are there?

16 / 25

Which of the following is correct about logic gates?

17 / 25

Which of the following is mainly sued in the production of Integrated Circuits?

18 / 25

How many types of Integrated Circuits are there?

19 / 25

Which among the following is not easy to fabricate on an Integrated Circuit?

20 / 25

What is the role of SiO2 in Integrated Circuits?

21 / 25

A TV signal is allocated with a bandwidth of 6 MHz.

22 / 25

The frequencies for transmitting music is which of the following?

23 / 25

What is the frequency range for a speech signal?

24 / 25

What is defined as the largest distance between the source and the destination upto which a signal can be received with sufficient strength?

25 / 25

What refers to the band of frequencies of the original signal?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

JEE Physics Quiz

1 / 26

[ML-1T-2] is the dimensional formula of

2 / 26

The dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity is

3 / 26

On the basis of dimensional equation, the maximum number of unknown that can be found, is

4 / 26

Which country recently launched the Artemis program to return astronauts to the Moon?

5 / 26

f v stands for velocity of sound, E is elasticity and d the density, then find x in the equation v = (d/E)x

6 / 26

The multiplication of 10.610 with 0.210 upto correct number of significant figure is

7 / 26

The measurement of radius of a circle has error of 1%. The error in measurement of its area is

8 / 26

Dimensional formula of latent heat

9 / 26

In case of measurement of ‘g’, if error in measurement of length of pendulum is 2%, the percentage error in time period is1 %. The maximum error in measurement of g is

10 / 26

If length of pendulum is increased by 2%. The time period will

11 / 26

If radian correction is not considered in specific heat measurement. The measured value of specific heat will be

12 / 26

A stone is released from an elevator going up with acceleration 5 m/s2 . The acceleration of the stone after the release is:

13 / 26

The locus of a projectile relative to another projectile is a

14 / 26

A car accelerates from rest at constant rate of 2 m/s2 for some time. Then its retards at a constant rate of 4 m/s2 and comes to rest. What is the maximum speed attained by the car if it remains in motion for 3 seconds

15 / 26

The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = ct2 and y = bt2. The speed of the particle is given by:

16 / 26

A particle is projected vertically upwards and it attains maximum height H. If the ratio of times to attain height h(h < H) is 1/3, then h equals

17 / 26

A swimmer wishes to reach directly opposite bank of a river, flowing with velocity 8 m/s. The swimmer can swim 10 m/s in still water. The width of the river is 480 m. Time taken by him to do so:

18 / 26

A man can swim at a speed of 5 km/h w.r.t. water. He wants to cross a 1.5 km wide river flowing at 3 km/h. He keeps himself always at an angle of 60° with the flow direction while swimming. The time taken by him to cross the river will be

19 / 26

When a body is stationary:

20 / 26

A toy train consists of three identical compartments X, Y and Z. It is pulled by a constant horizontal force F applied on Z horizontally. Assuming there is negligible friction, the ratio of tension in string connecting XY and YZ is:

21 / 26

Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 1 kg are in contact with each other on a frictionless table, when a horizontal force of 3.0 N is applied to the block of mass 2 kg the value of the force of contact between the two blocks is:

22 / 26

A block of metal weighing 2 Kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water at a rate of 1 Kg/sec and at a speed of 5m/sec. The initial acceleration of the block will be:

23 / 26

When a force of constant magnitude always act perpendicular to the motion of a particle then:

24 / 26

Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends of string which passes over the pulley attached to the top of a double inclined plane. The angles of inclination of the inclined planes are α and β . Take g = 10 ms-2. If M1 = M2 and α = β , what is the acceleration of the system ?

25 / 26

Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45° inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane is:

26 / 26

A trolley car slides down a smooth inclined plane of angle of inclination θ. If a body is suspended from the roof of the trolley car by an inextensible string of length l, the corresponding tension in the string will be

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

JEE Organic Chemistry Class 11th ,QUIZ

1 / 25

Water samples with BOD values of 4 ppm and 18 ppm, respectively, are

2 / 25

Addition of phosphate fertilizers to water bodies causes

3 / 25

The layer of atmosphere between 10 km and 50 km above the sea level is called

4 / 25

BOD stands for

5 / 25

Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility as a human being to protect our environment?

6 / 25

The number and type of bonds in C22- ion in CaC2 are:

7 / 25

Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde as one of the products. This confirms the presence of:-

8 / 25

Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72 u gives only one isomer of mono substituted alkyl halide?

9 / 25

One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular mass of 44 u. The alkene is:-

10 / 25

Which one of the following classes of compounds is obtained by polymerization of acetylene?

11 / 25

The gas liberated by the electrolysis of Dipotassium succinate solution is :

12 / 25

Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is:

13 / 25

The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is:-

14 / 25

Dipole moment is shown by:-

15 / 25

Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism:-

16 / 25

Monocarboxylic acids are functional isomers of :

17 / 25

 The compound formed in the positive test for nitrogen with the Lassaigne solution of an organic compound is

18 / 25

Which one of the following compounds will not be soluble in sodium bicarbonate ?

19 / 25

Among the following the molecule with the lowest dipole moment is:-

20 / 25

Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has

the smallest pKb value?

21 / 25

The most basic compound among the following is:-

22 / 25

The IUPAC name of acetyl salicylic acid is

23 / 25

The IUPAC name of CH3CHO is

24 / 25

The systematic name of CH3-CHBr-CH2OH is

25 / 25

The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *